I remember a heated discussion on this years ago and I was proved wrong in the following:-
if a price says 50p on the shelf and it is actually 500p when scanned - the advertised price must be charged (the 50p)
BUT the show I just watched about consumer law says that infact as long as this isn't a deliberate mistake, the company can charge you 500p PROVIDED you haven't already paid for the goods.
Tris & others what is your stance on this? I cba to sift through all my own shit on that thread 3-4 years ago.
if a price says 50p on the shelf and it is actually 500p when scanned - the advertised price must be charged (the 50p)
BUT the show I just watched about consumer law says that infact as long as this isn't a deliberate mistake, the company can charge you 500p PROVIDED you haven't already paid for the goods.
Tris & others what is your stance on this? I cba to sift through all my own shit on that thread 3-4 years ago.