X
xane
Guest
Okay heres my take.
In Episode VI, picture the fight scene with Luke and Vader and the Emperor snickering in the background taunting Luke to "give in" to all the evil. Then Luke severs Vader's hand, just like Vader did to him in Episode V, but, he notices that Vader already has a robot hand and grasps his own robot hand in recognition.
Now at this point I kind of deduced that Anakin-Vader had obviously gone through the same thing with the Emperor, his real hand had been severed as a kind of right of passage towards the dark side, in the same way as happened to Luke in Episode V, therefore realising this, Luke turns and refuses to fight further, not making the same mistake his father did and submitting to the dark side - hurrah !
Now in Episode II all this theory gets buggered up, because it is Dooku who severs Anakin-Vader's hand, well actually his entire arm, so all that "right of passage" crap I'd been thinking all those years was wrong, Episode II ends with Anakin-Vader's golden robot right arm clearly showing.
The only thing I can think of is that Anakin-Vader has now lost his right arm and continues to fight left handed, so then he can go through the "right of passage" stuff as per my theory, but I'm too lazy to check that he uses the sabre in his left hand in Episodes IV thru VI.
So, is it:
(a) not what I though it was.
(b) right-hand left-hand.
(c) Lucas buggering up the script.
?
In Episode VI, picture the fight scene with Luke and Vader and the Emperor snickering in the background taunting Luke to "give in" to all the evil. Then Luke severs Vader's hand, just like Vader did to him in Episode V, but, he notices that Vader already has a robot hand and grasps his own robot hand in recognition.
Now at this point I kind of deduced that Anakin-Vader had obviously gone through the same thing with the Emperor, his real hand had been severed as a kind of right of passage towards the dark side, in the same way as happened to Luke in Episode V, therefore realising this, Luke turns and refuses to fight further, not making the same mistake his father did and submitting to the dark side - hurrah !
Now in Episode II all this theory gets buggered up, because it is Dooku who severs Anakin-Vader's hand, well actually his entire arm, so all that "right of passage" crap I'd been thinking all those years was wrong, Episode II ends with Anakin-Vader's golden robot right arm clearly showing.
The only thing I can think of is that Anakin-Vader has now lost his right arm and continues to fight left handed, so then he can go through the "right of passage" stuff as per my theory, but I'm too lazy to check that he uses the sabre in his left hand in Episodes IV thru VI.
So, is it:
(a) not what I though it was.
(b) right-hand left-hand.
(c) Lucas buggering up the script.
?