Shovel
Can't get enough of FH
- Joined
- Dec 22, 2003
- Messages
- 1,350
Right, yes this is after some coursework help. My Decision Support Systems module at uni has set me some coursework, for which the questions are a step up from those we were lectured on. This is fine by me, but there has been the slight neglect on the part of the lecturer to recommend where we go about learning the extra we need. He recommended only one book for the module and that doesn't cover it.
Google isn't helping, so I've come here. Ha!
It seems to be very much stats-maths, so here goes:
The question centres around a situation where you are offered a 50-50 chance of either winning £400,000 or nothing, £200,000 or nothing or losing £100,000 or nothing.
It concerns 'how much would you sell that chance for (or in the case of the latter, 'how much would you pay to avoid the risk').
It offers two utility values - an upper pound-reference of U(£400,000) set to 160 , and a lower pound-reference amount U(-£100,000) set to -40.
Now, the process of working from those two initial value sets and making up 3 more intermediate sets is fine, I can do it. However what I'm unsure of is whether the values (160 and -40) have to be normalised in any way first. The original example in my lecture notes uses the values 1 and 0 for upper and lower respectively, and no prior note mentions converting from unnormalised values. However, I have no idea whether he picked 1 and 0 because they're correct, or because it's convenient and easier as a first time example.
As I say, the text book just ignores this whole sodding chapter so... well... kinda stuck
Question is - do I have to normalise U(£x) values, and if so: how?
Thanks very much
Google isn't helping, so I've come here. Ha!
It seems to be very much stats-maths, so here goes:
The question centres around a situation where you are offered a 50-50 chance of either winning £400,000 or nothing, £200,000 or nothing or losing £100,000 or nothing.
It concerns 'how much would you sell that chance for (or in the case of the latter, 'how much would you pay to avoid the risk').
It offers two utility values - an upper pound-reference of U(£400,000) set to 160 , and a lower pound-reference amount U(-£100,000) set to -40.
Now, the process of working from those two initial value sets and making up 3 more intermediate sets is fine, I can do it. However what I'm unsure of is whether the values (160 and -40) have to be normalised in any way first. The original example in my lecture notes uses the values 1 and 0 for upper and lower respectively, and no prior note mentions converting from unnormalised values. However, I have no idea whether he picked 1 and 0 because they're correct, or because it's convenient and easier as a first time example.
As I say, the text book just ignores this whole sodding chapter so... well... kinda stuck
Question is - do I have to normalise U(£x) values, and if so: how?
Thanks very much